Boa noite prezados, Gostaria de saber se alguém sabe me explicar por que a variância de dados binomiais é tão similar a relação de probabilidades dado por p[1-p]. Segundo meu exemplo: var.H.termes<-c(0.07692308,0.20923521,0.24819625,0.03059211,0.03995434,0.11122031, 0.25221018,0.1343785,0.09014085,0.07893114,0.23298351,0.10613884,0.01098901,0.10188088,0.25029985)##Vetor de variâncias p.H.termes<-c(0.08333333,0.29292929,0.56565657,0.03125,0.04109589,0.12612613, 0.50909091,0.15789474,0.09859155,0.08571429,0.36206897,0.11904762,0.01098901,0.11363636,0.45689655)##Vetor de probabilidades var.H.termes #é similar a p.H.termes<-p.H.termes*(1-p.H.termes) p.H.termes Obrigado, -- ====================================================================== Alexandre dos Santos Proteção Florestal IFMT - Instituto Federal de Educação, Ciência e Tecnologia de Mato Grosso Campus Cáceres Caixa Postal 244 Avenida dos Ramires, s/n Bairro: Distrito Industrial Cáceres - MT CEP: 78.200-000 Fone: (+55) 65 8132-8112 (TIM) (+55) 65 9686-6970 (VIVO) e-mails:alexandresantosbr@yahoo.com.br alexandre.santos@cas.ifmt.edu.br Lattes: http://lattes.cnpq.br/1360403201088680 ======================================================================